First, I stated "if they were causal." Second, I stated that I am not sure why we are seeing these massively disparate results. Mostly, it is important to recognize both results, which result in gun concentration being very strongly negatively correlated with crime. This leads to the rejection of both purely ideological theories on gun ownership. So now the question is how can we deal with this issue in a manner to effectively regulate gun sales such that we might see some of the positive effects from controlling how many households have guns while not threatening the ability of households that are particularly gun loving from owning guns, as these households seem associated with a decrease in crime and certainly not an increase.